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Did they? Did you just make a reverse strawman fallacy?
Personally I think the comment could’ve been worded better as it can be interpreted either as
(I.E. Fascists use the excuse, provably correct and can be generalised to authoritarianism in general) However I do see that it could potentially be taken the other way as
(I.E only those who used the excuse are fascists, completely false) I used the principle of charity and assumed the inital argument was logical, though its understandable if others aren’t willing to do that